T****t
发帖数: 616 | 1 A 30-year-old man with AIDS develops focal epileptic seizures. The CT shows
multiple enhancing lesions.The CD4 helper T-cell count is 50 cells/mm3.
Treatment with an antibiotic causes some resolution of the lesions. Which of
the following is the most likely pathogen?
C.neoformans; EBV; CMV; HSV-1; Toxoplasma gondii |
s**********r
发帖数: 178 | |
m***d
发帖数: 441 | 3 multiple enhancing lesions, Toxoplasma gondii? |
c********n
发帖数: 4762 | 4 我选C.neoformans，Toxoplasma gondii不是HIV 病吧。 |
T****t
发帖数: 616 | 5 I got it wrong too, by choosing T.gondii. The answer is EBV (CNS lymphoma)
The key is the antibiotic use, T.gondii should response to antibiotic well. |
s**********r
发帖数: 178 | 6 呵呵，这个题还真狡猾啊
【在 T****t 的大作中提到】
: I got it wrong too, by choosing T.gondii. The answer is EBV (CNS lymphoma)
: The key is the antibiotic use, T.gondii should response to antibiotic well.
|
n***a
发帖数: 1373 | 7 I think CNS lymphoma from EBV is usually a single weak-enhancing lesion.
This is what I learned from step 2 though.
"Treatment with an antibiotic causes some resolution of the lesions." what
does this mean? Does antibiotics work or not?
Is this a UW step 1 question? |
