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x*******8
发帖数: 68 | 1 3-9
A 37 year old man comes to the physician for a follow up examination. 8
years ago, he had the gradual onset of symptoms of schizophrenia without any
apparent precipitating factors. He loves alone and is able to care for
himself. He has no history of depression. He has had 2 brief
hospitalizations for medication adjustment. His only medication is
risperidone. Physical exam shows no abnormilities. Mental status exam shows
a mildly constricted affect. He is concerned about his prognosis. Which of
the following historical factors is most predictive of a good prognosis for
this patient?
A absence of depression
B absence of precipitation factors for symptoms
C Gradual onset of symptoms
D late onset of symptoms
E living independently
the answer is d. I got E. | x*******8
发帖数: 68 | 2 2nd one
3-14
A 67 year old woman is brought to the ED because of the inability move the
right side of her body since awakening this morning.. she has type 2
diabetes mellitus. Her blood pressure is 170/95. Exaniation shows dysarthric
speech, but language function is normal. Cranial nerves are intact except
for moderate weakness of the right low face. She is unable to move the right
upper or lower extremities. Sensation is intact. There is hyperreflexia of
the right upper and lower extremities. And babinski’s sign is present on
the right. Which of the following is the most location of the lesion?
A basal gangia
B brain stem
C cerebellum
D cervical nerve root
E frontoparietal cortex
F internal capsule
the answer is b. I think it is A. | S******9
发帖数: 2837 | 3 3-9: D
3-14: F because the patient only has motor dysfunction, no sensation damage
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